frankb
17th September 2003, 12:13
Hi all,

Baan IVc4

We have some 2000 purchased items with a peculiar characteristic:
- cost price in tiitm0101m000 (tiitm001.copr) = 0, material costs = 1, purchase price = 1
- actual cost price calculation code has current purchase price as first priority
- ticpr200 and ticpr300 have both one record with amount 1
- the effective date in the ticpr300-record is equal to the last cost price transaction date in tiitm001

So, it seems that for some reason tiitm001.copr hasn't been updated during the initial cost price calculation or that possibly there has been another process that has made tiitm001.copr equal to 0, without updating the last cost price transaction date and without updating ticpr200 and ticpr300. Just guesses.

All data have been entered in the current system (no migration, no data import).

Does this sound familiar to anybody? What could've caused this?

It's not so difficult to solve this: change current purchase price, calculate cpr, change purchase price back, recalculate cpr. We just want to know what might have caused this and therefore whether it's likely to happen again.

Thanks in advance for any clues.

Frank