amyumyun
23rd January 2006, 15:27
Is there any way to realize this scenario in BaaN IV?

Lot Item A

(1 pcs/lot)

On 01.01.06 I purchase the item A: 1 pcs * $100 (lot 1)

On 01.02.06 I purchase the same item A: 1 pcs * $200 (lot 2)

On 01.03.06 I want to issue the item A, but with a lot price 1: $100

I don't have to use the average purchase price, which is $150!!!

How can I do that?:confused:

Hitesh Shah
24th January 2006, 19:17
It should be possible for purchased items with lot price stock valuation and outbound priority FIFO .

amyumyun
25th January 2006, 15:48
It should be possible for purchased items with lot price stock valuation and outbound priority FIFO .
Thank you very much!
I will try and inform you :-)

amyumyun
26th January 2006, 10:26
Hi Hitech,

Unfortunately BaaN calculates the average purchase price and then updates the standard cost price.

When I issue the purchased item to the project the system uses the standard cost price (which actually is the APP).

This is unacceptable :-(

Hitesh Shah
26th January 2006, 17:23
Item issues are always at standard cost . It is the inventory which is valued at actual price . At the time of issue , lot result is generated for issued quantity , may be u can use lot variance account to charge to the project cost .

In lot price the variance is calculated only for the consumed quantity at the time of issue or at the of time price change in finance (tfacp1140s000 / tdpur4122m000) for consumed quantity.
.

asharnouby
8th February 2006, 14:09
For new items if you can define the inventory vlauation as lot price then it is possible. (Maintain item data , form I)

But you will also have to maintain integrations in finance for lot variances.

For existing items it is not possible to convert to new costing policy.

If you need just inventory valuation and no entries in financial books, then you will have to make a report by each lot price.